See, on the upcoming ballot, the voters of Minnesota have the choice of voting Yes or No about what marriage is defined as. More like ban gay marriage, but they gotta change the wording of course.
I don't see how this constitutionally right.
See, the only real reason I have ever been given about why homosexuality is wrong is that the Bible says so. And so marriage is between a man and a woman. Ok, I've read the Bible, I've seen the passages, I get that.
But marriage really isn't a religious thing. I mean, yes, you have a ceremony and church, the church recognizes the marriage. But you are not legally married until you get a marriage license from the courthouse or where ever you get one. The point is you get one through the STATE and after you sign one the STATE recognizes you are married.
There is supposed to be separation of church and state. Yes, I realize that this is not really true and that most people don't separate them. But we supposedly have this separation. Isn't that why praying in public schools and the Pledge of Allegence is not allowed in most places?
So how can a ban on gay marriage be allowed when it is religiously-based amendment about a state-based concept and we have a separation of church and state?
Sure, the church can say no gay marriage and not allow them to get married in a church. I disagree with it, but because the church is private it's legal. But the actual act of marriage, that is signing a document saying you are married, should not be a strictly heterosexual thing. It doesn't seem right that marriage can be defined by the Bible when we have separation of religion and state.
Can someone please explain another reason? Because I have no other explanation and this one doesn't make any sense whatsoever.